Q1. A DC motor converts electrical energy into:

A. Mechanical energy B. Chemical energy C. Light energy D. Sound energy

Check Answer

Correct Answer: A   |   Marks: 1

Explanation: The motor converts electrical input into mechanical shaft output.

Q2. Motor torque is produced by interaction of:

A. Magnetic flux and armature current B. Resistance and capacitance C. Voltage and frequency only D. Temperature and speed

Check Answer

Correct Answer: A   |   Marks: 1

Explanation: Electromagnetic torque is proportional to flux and armature current.

Q3. Back emf in a DC motor opposes the:

A. Applied voltage B. Mechanical load C. Field resistance D. Brush pressure

Check Answer

Correct Answer: A   |   Marks: 1

Explanation: Back emf opposes the supply and limits armature current.

Q4. The commutator of a conventional DC motor provides:

A. Mechanical rectification B. Voltage amplification C. Power factor correction D. Frequency multiplication

Check Answer

Correct Answer: A   |   Marks: 1

Explanation: It reverses coil current at the correct instant to maintain torque.

Q5. A shunt field winding is connected:

A. In parallel with the armature B. In series with the armature C. Only to the shaft D. Across the bearing

Check Answer

Correct Answer: A   |   Marks: 1

Explanation: A shunt field is connected across the supply.

Q6. The approximate speed relation of a DC motor is:

A. N proportional to Eb/Φ B. N proportional to Φ/Eb C. N proportional to Ra only D. N proportional to zero

Check Answer

Correct Answer: A   |   Marks: 1

Explanation: Speed is approximately proportional to back emf divided by flux.

Q7. A DC series motor must not run without load because it may:

A. Overspeed dangerously B. Produce no current C. Have zero resistance D. Always reverse direction

Check Answer

Correct Answer: A   |   Marks: 1

Explanation: At light load, flux becomes small and speed can rise excessively.

Q8. A starter is used in a DC motor mainly to limit:

A. Starting armature current B. Rated speed C. Field resistance to zero D. Mechanical friction

Check Answer

Correct Answer: A   |   Marks: 1

Explanation: At starting, back emf is zero, so current would otherwise be very high.

Q9. If flux is reduced in a shunt motor at constant load, speed generally:

A. Increases B. Decreases to zero C. Remains exactly constant D. Becomes negative

Check Answer

Correct Answer: A   |   Marks: 1

Explanation: Since N is approximately Eb/Φ, reduced flux increases speed.

Q10. The SI unit of torque is:

A. N·m B. Wb/s C. Ohm D. Hz

Check Answer

Correct Answer: A   |   Marks: 1

Explanation: Torque is measured in newton-metres.

Q11. A 220 V motor has Ra=1 Ω and Ia=10 A. Neglect brush drop. Eb is:

A. 210 V B. 220 V C. 230 V D. 22 V

Check Answer

Correct Answer: A   |   Marks: 1

Explanation: Eb=V−IaRa=220−10=210 V.

Q12. A motor produces 20 N·m at 100 rad/s. Mechanical power is:

A. 2 kW B. 200 W C. 20 W D. 0.2 kW

Check Answer

Correct Answer: A   |   Marks: 1

Explanation: P=Tω=20×100=2000 W.

Q13. If armature current doubles at constant flux, torque:

A. Doubles B. Halves C. Becomes four times D. Does not change

Check Answer

Correct Answer: A   |   Marks: 1

Explanation: Torque is proportional to flux times armature current.

Q14. Below base speed, a common efficient control method is:

A. Armature-voltage control B. Supply-frequency control C. Removing the field D. Increasing friction

Check Answer

Correct Answer: A   |   Marks: 1

Explanation: Armature-voltage control is commonly used below base speed.

Q15. A 240 V motor draws 5 A with Ra=2 Ω. Back emf is:

A. 230 V B. 240 V C. 250 V D. 10 V

Check Answer

Correct Answer: A   |   Marks: 1

Explanation: Eb=240−5×2=230 V.

Q16. Converted electromagnetic power in a DC motor is:

A. EbIa B. VIa only C. Ia²Ra D. V/Ra

Check Answer

Correct Answer: A   |   Marks: 1

Explanation: The power converted from electrical to mechanical form is EbIa.

Q17. A motor has Eb=200 V and Ia=15 A. Converted power is:

A. 3 kW B. 3.3 kW C. 300 W D. 13.3 kW

Check Answer

Correct Answer: A   |   Marks: 1

Explanation: Pconv=EbIa=200×15=3000 W.

Q18. A motor runs at 1000 rpm with flux Φ. If flux becomes 0.8Φ and Eb is constant, speed is approximately:

A. 1250 rpm B. 800 rpm C. 1000 rpm D. 1280 rpm

Check Answer

Correct Answer: A   |   Marks: 1

Explanation: N2/N1=Φ1/Φ2=1/0.8; N2=1250 rpm.

Q19. For a long-shunt compound motor, the shunt field is across:

A. Armature plus series-field combination B. Armature alone C. Series field alone D. Commutator only

Check Answer

Correct Answer: A   |   Marks: 1

Explanation: Long-shunt connection places the shunt field across both series field and armature.

Q20. A 200 V motor has Ia=20 A, Ra=0.5 Ω and brush drop=2 V. Eb is:

A. 188 V B. 190 V C. 198 V D. 210 V

Check Answer

Correct Answer: A   |   Marks: 1

Explanation: Eb=200−20×0.5−2=188 V.

Q21. A servo motor is used for precise control of:

A. Position, speed or torque B. Temperature only C. Resistance only D. Supply frequency only

Check Answer

Correct Answer: A   |   Marks: 1

Explanation: Servo systems use feedback for controlled motion.

Q22. A common position-feedback device is:

A. Encoder B. Fuse C. Transformer oil gauge D. Thermocouple only

Check Answer

Correct Answer: A   |   Marks: 1

Explanation: An encoder measures angular position or movement.

Q23. A closed-loop servo compares the reference with:

A. Feedback signal B. Motor colour C. Ambient light D. Bearing grease

Check Answer

Correct Answer: A   |   Marks: 1

Explanation: The error is the difference between command and measured output.

Q24. A servo drive primarily controls:

A. Motor electrical power and motion B. Lubricant level C. Shaft diameter D. Room temperature

Check Answer

Correct Answer: A   |   Marks: 1

Explanation: The drive regulates motor current, speed or position.

Q25. Many hobby positional servos use command:

A. Pulse width B. Wire length C. Oil pressure D. Motor temperature

Check Answer

Correct Answer: A   |   Marks: 1

Explanation: Pulse width commonly represents the desired shaft position.

Q26. Feedback generally improves:

A. Accuracy and disturbance rejection B. Open-loop uncertainty C. Bearing size D. Supply frequency

Check Answer

Correct Answer: A   |   Marks: 1

Explanation: Feedback allows the controller to correct errors and disturbances.

Q27. A small DC servo commonly uses:

A. Permanent-magnet field B. Steam pressure C. A capacitor rotor D. No magnetic field

Check Answer

Correct Answer: A   |   Marks: 1

Explanation: Permanent magnets provide a convenient constant field.

Q28. Position error is normally:

A. Reference minus measured position B. Voltage plus current C. Speed times resistance D. Torque divided by time

Check Answer

Correct Answer: A   |   Marks: 1

Explanation: The controller uses the difference between desired and actual position.

Q29. Servo oscillation may result from:

A. Poor controller tuning B. No shaft C. Infinite insulation D. Zero mechanical mass only

Check Answer

Correct Answer: A   |   Marks: 1

Explanation: Excessive gain or insufficient damping can produce oscillation.

Q30. A servo is especially useful when:

A. Feedback-based accuracy is required B. Position is irrelevant C. No controller exists D. Only a fixed speed is needed

Check Answer

Correct Answer: A   |   Marks: 1

Explanation: Servo systems can correct position and speed errors.

Q31. A servo moves 180° in 0.5 s. Average speed is:

A. 360°/s B. 90°/s C. 180°/s D. 720°/s

Check Answer

Correct Answer: A   |   Marks: 1

Explanation: Average speed=180/0.5=360°/s.

Q32. Command position is 120° and measured position is 113°. Error is:

A. 7° B. 233° C. 113° D. 120°

Check Answer

Correct Answer: A   |   Marks: 1

Explanation: Error=120−113=7°.

Q33. An encoder gives 1000 pulses per revolution. One pulse represents:

A. 0.36° B. 1° C. 3.6° D. 0.036°

Check Answer

Correct Answer: A   |   Marks: 1

Explanation: Resolution=360/1000=0.36°.

Q34. A 12 V servo draws 2 A. Input power is:

A. 24 W B. 6 W C. 14 W D. 120 W

Check Answer

Correct Answer: A   |   Marks: 1

Explanation: P=VI=12×2=24 W.

Q35. A brushless servo has the advantage of:

A. No mechanical commutator wear B. No controller requirement C. No torque production D. Only one speed

Check Answer

Correct Answer: A   |   Marks: 1

Explanation: Electronic commutation avoids brush and commutator wear.

Q36. A tachogenerator is mainly used to measure:

A. Speed B. Position only C. Temperature D. Insulation resistance

Check Answer

Correct Answer: A   |   Marks: 1

Explanation: A tachogenerator generates a signal proportional to speed.

Q37. A proportional controller has error 2° and gain 5 V/°. Output is:

A. 10 V B. 2.5 V C. 7 V D. 0.4 V

Check Answer

Correct Answer: A   |   Marks: 1

Explanation: Output=gain×error=5×2=10 V.

Q38. A servo develops 4 N·m at 50 rad/s. Mechanical power is:

A. 200 W B. 12.5 W C. 54 W D. 800 W

Check Answer

Correct Answer: A   |   Marks: 1

Explanation: P=Tω=4×50=200 W.

Q39. A 12-bit absolute encoder provides how many codes per revolution?

A. 4096 B. 2048 C. 1200 D. 12

Check Answer

Correct Answer: A   |   Marks: 1

Explanation: Number of codes=2^12=4096.

Q40. A constant position error under constant load may be reduced by:

A. Suitable integral action B. Removing feedback C. Reducing sensor resolution to zero D. Disconnecting the drive

Check Answer

Correct Answer: A   |   Marks: 1

Explanation: Integral action can reduce steady-state error, provided stability is maintained.

Q41. A stepper motor converts input pulses into:

A. Discrete angular movement B. Heat only C. Fluid flow D. Chemical energy

Check Answer

Correct Answer: A   |   Marks: 1

Explanation: Each pulse commands a defined step or microstep.

Q42. A basic stepper system is commonly:

A. Open loop B. Hydraulic loop C. Thermal loop D. Without a power circuit

Check Answer

Correct Answer: A   |   Marks: 1

Explanation: The controller normally assumes the motor follows the commanded steps.

Q43. Angular movement per full pulse is called:

A. Step angle B. Slip angle C. Power-factor angle D. Brush angle

Check Answer

Correct Answer: A   |   Marks: 1

Explanation: Step angle is the rotor movement for one full step.

Q44. A 1.8° stepper requires full steps per revolution equal to:

A. 200 B. 100 C. 180 D. 360

Check Answer

Correct Answer: A   |   Marks: 1

Explanation: Steps/revolution=360/1.8=200.

Q45. A stepper motor is commonly used for:

A. Positioning and indexing B. Power transmission only C. Temperature measurement D. Power-factor correction

Check Answer

Correct Answer: A   |   Marks: 1

Explanation: Steppers are useful where incremental positioning is required.

Q46. A bipolar stepper generally needs:

A. H-bridge current reversal B. One fixed switch only C. No driver D. A transformer alone

Check Answer

Correct Answer: A   |   Marks: 1

Explanation: Bipolar windings require current reversal.

Q47. Microstepping mainly improves:

A. Resolution and smoothness B. Step angle size C. Need for current control D. Supply voltage to zero

Check Answer

Correct Answer: A   |   Marks: 1

Explanation: Microstepping divides a full step into smaller increments.

Q48. Stepper torque falls at high speed mainly because:

A. Winding current cannot rise quickly enough B. Gravity disappears C. Rotor has no inertia D. Supply becomes mechanical

Check Answer

Correct Answer: A   |   Marks: 1

Explanation: Inductance and back emf limit current at high stepping rates.

Q49. A current-limiting driver is used to:

A. Control winding current B. Remove magnetic fields C. Stop all switching D. Increase shaft length

Check Answer

Correct Answer: A   |   Marks: 1

Explanation: Current regulation protects windings and controls torque.

Q50. When pulses stop and windings remain energized, a stepper generally:

A. Holds near its last position B. Accelerates indefinitely C. Changes to AC generator automatically D. Reverses every second

Check Answer

Correct Answer: A   |   Marks: 1

Explanation: The stationary magnetic field holds the rotor.

Q51. A 1.8° motor receives 50 full-step pulses. Rotation is:

A. 90° B. 50° C. 180° D. 9°

Check Answer

Correct Answer: A   |   Marks: 1

Explanation: Angle=50×1.8=90°.

Q52. A motor takes 400 steps/s and has 200 steps/rev. Speed is:

A. 120 rpm B. 60 rpm C. 400 rpm D. 200 rpm

Check Answer

Correct Answer: A   |   Marks: 1

Explanation: 400/200=2 rev/s; speed=2×60=120 rpm.

Q53. A motor has 200 steps/rev and receives 600 pulses/s. Pulse frequency is:

A. 600 Hz B. 200 Hz C. 3 Hz D. 120 Hz

Check Answer

Correct Answer: A   |   Marks: 1

Explanation: One pulse commands one step, so frequency is 600 Hz.

Q54. A 0.9° motor requires full steps per revolution equal to:

A. 400 B. 200 C. 360 D. 90

Check Answer

Correct Answer: A   |   Marks: 1

Explanation: Steps/revolution=360/0.9=400.

Q55. A 200-step motor rotates 1.5 revolutions. Steps required are:

A. 300 B. 133.3 C. 200 D. 400

Check Answer

Correct Answer: A   |   Marks: 1

Explanation: Steps=200×1.5=300.

Q56. A 1.8° motor is microstepped into 8 parts. Microstep angle is:

A. 0.225° B. 14.4° C. 1.8° D. 0.8°

Check Answer

Correct Answer: A   |   Marks: 1

Explanation: Microstep angle=1.8/8=0.225°.

Q57. A stepper loses synchronism when required acceleration exceeds its ability to:

A. Develop torque and follow the commanded field B. Reduce voltage to zero C. Increase rotor mass D. Reverse gravity

Check Answer

Correct Answer: A   |   Marks: 1

Explanation: Excessive acceleration or load torque can cause missed steps.

Q58. A 200-step motor runs at 180 rpm. Pulse frequency is:

A. 600 Hz B. 180 Hz C. 200 Hz D. 60 Hz

Check Answer

Correct Answer: A   |   Marks: 1

Explanation: 180 rpm=3 rev/s; frequency=3×200=600 Hz.

Q59. A driver uses 24 V for a 3 V winding. This is acceptable when the driver:

A. Limits winding current B. Connects directly without switching C. Removes inductance D. Uses no control

Check Answer

Correct Answer: A   |   Marks: 1

Explanation: Chopper drivers use higher voltage with regulated current limiting.

Q60. A 1.8° motor is microstepped by 16 and receives 800 pulses. Rotation is:

A. 90° B. 45° C. 180° D. 800°

Check Answer

Correct Answer: A   |   Marks: 1

Explanation: Microstep angle=1.8/16=0.1125°; 800×0.1125=90°.

Q61. An electrical relay is used to:

A. Control one circuit using another B. Store mechanical energy only C. Measure temperature directly D. Convert energy to fuel

Check Answer

Correct Answer: A   |   Marks: 1

Explanation: A relay uses an input circuit to switch contacts in another circuit.

Q62. An electromechanical relay contains:

A. Coil and contacts B. Only a resistor C. Only a capacitor D. Only a hydraulic piston

Check Answer

Correct Answer: A   |   Marks: 1

Explanation: The coil actuates contacts using magnetic force.

Q63. NO contact means:

A. Normally open B. Normally overloaded C. Negative output D. No operation

Check Answer

Correct Answer: A   |   Marks: 1

Explanation: It is open when the relay is de-energized.

Q64. NC contact means:

A. Normally closed B. No current C. Negative coil D. Normally calibrated

Check Answer

Correct Answer: A   |   Marks: 1

Explanation: It is closed in the normal de-energized state.

Q65. A relay coil is energized by:

A. Current through its winding B. Mechanical vibration only C. Light in every case D. A melting fuse

Check Answer

Correct Answer: A   |   Marks: 1

Explanation: Coil current creates the magnetic field.

Q66. A flyback diode across a DC coil is used to:

A. Suppress inductive voltage B. Increase contact resistance C. Convert DC to AC D. Remove all inductance

Check Answer

Correct Answer: A   |   Marks: 1

Explanation: It provides a discharge path for stored inductive energy.

Q67. Relay contacts can provide:

A. Isolation between control and load circuits B. Only mechanical lubrication C. Frequency multiplication D. Temperature compensation only

Check Answer

Correct Answer: A   |   Marks: 1

Explanation: The contacts can separate low-power control from the switched circuit.

Q68. A contactor is generally designed for:

A. Higher-power switching B. Humidity measurement C. Encoder generation D. Replacing every fuse

Check Answer

Correct Answer: A   |   Marks: 1

Explanation: Contactors are designed for robust switching of power loads.

Q69. Contact bounce is:

A. Rapid unintended make-break transitions B. Permanent contact welding only C. Coil cooling D. A supply frequency change

Check Answer

Correct Answer: A   |   Marks: 1

Explanation: Mechanical contacts can bounce briefly during operation.

Q70. An overload relay mainly protects a motor against:

A. Sustained overload current B. Every short circuit instantly C. Low ambient light D. Incorrect motor colour

Check Answer

Correct Answer: A   |   Marks: 1

Explanation: Overload relays respond over time; short-circuit protection is separate.

Q71. A 24 V coil has resistance 120 Ω. Current is:

A. 0.2 A B. 5 A C. 20 A D. 2880 A

Check Answer

Correct Answer: A   |   Marks: 1

Explanation: I=V/R=24/120=0.2 A.

Q72. A 24 V coil draws 0.2 A. Power is:

A. 4.8 W B. 120 W C. 0.2 W D. 24 W

Check Answer

Correct Answer: A   |   Marks: 1

Explanation: P=VI=24×0.2=4.8 W.

Q73. A 5 A-rated contact should not continuously switch:

A. 8 A B. 1 A C. 0.5 A D. Zero current

Check Answer

Correct Answer: A   |   Marks: 1

Explanation: The load exceeds the contact rating.

Q74. A latching relay:

A. Maintains state without continuous coil power B. Works only on AC C. Has no contacts D. Cannot be controlled electrically

Check Answer

Correct Answer: A   |   Marks: 1

Explanation: Its mechanism maintains the state after the actuating pulse.

Q75. A DC motor reversing relay circuit must prevent:

A. Simultaneous opposing connections B. All motor current C. Use of a fuse D. Any control signal

Check Answer

Correct Answer: A   |   Marks: 1

Explanation: Interlocking prevents a short circuit through the supply.

Q76. A 12 V coil has resistance 60 Ω and is energized for 10 s. Energy is:

A. 24 J B. 2 J C. 120 J D. 720 J

Check Answer

Correct Answer: A   |   Marks: 1

Explanation: Power=12²/60=2.4 W; energy=2.4×10=24 J.

Q77. A contact resistance of 0.05 Ω carries 4 A. Power loss is:

A. 0.8 W B. 0.2 W C. 4 W D. 80 W

Check Answer

Correct Answer: A   |   Marks: 1

Explanation: P=I²R=4²×0.05=0.8 W.

Q78. A relay operates in 5 ms and releases in 3 ms. Total delay is:

A. 8 ms B. 2 ms C. 15 ms D. 1.67 ms

Check Answer

Correct Answer: A   |   Marks: 1

Explanation: Total=5+3=8 ms.

Q79. A normally closed stop button is used because:

A. A broken wire tends to create a stop condition B. It always increases speed C. It cannot carry current D. It removes overload protection

Check Answer

Correct Answer: A   |   Marks: 1

Explanation: The arrangement is commonly used for fail-safe stopping.

Q80. A microcontroller drives a relay coil through a transistor because:

A. GPIO current may be insufficient and needs protection B. The coil needs no current C. The transistor removes magnetism D. The relay works without voltage

Check Answer

Correct Answer: A   |   Marks: 1

Explanation: The transistor supplies coil current; a flyback diode protects against inductive voltage.

Q81. A motor driver is used to:

A. Supply controlled power from a control signal B. Measure shaft length only C. Replace bearings D. Provide lubrication

Check Answer

Correct Answer: A   |   Marks: 1

Explanation: A driver interfaces low-power control signals with motor power requirements.

Q82. An H-bridge is commonly used to control:

A. DC motor direction B. Temperature only C. A thermocouple D. A fuse

Check Answer

Correct Answer: A   |   Marks: 1

Explanation: It reverses motor terminal polarity.

Q83. PWM controls average motor voltage by changing:

A. Duty cycle B. Wire colour C. Shaft length D. Fuse shape

Check Answer

Correct Answer: A   |   Marks: 1

Explanation: Duty cycle determines the average applied energy under the simplified model.

Q84. A flyback diode is important when switching:

A. An inductive load B. A purely resistive lamp only C. A spring only D. An open circuit

Check Answer

Correct Answer: A   |   Marks: 1

Explanation: Inductive current can create a high voltage when interrupted.

Q85. A MOSFET in a motor driver acts as:

A. An electronic power switch B. A bearing C. A temperature sensor D. A fuse only

Check Answer

Correct Answer: A   |   Marks: 1

Explanation: MOSFETs switch motor current electronically.

Q86. A stepper driver controls:

A. Phase sequence and winding current B. Only motor colour C. Only bearing pressure D. Only humidity

Check Answer

Correct Answer: A   |   Marks: 1

Explanation: The driver commutates phases and regulates current.

Q87. Driver current rating should consider:

A. Continuous and peak motor current B. Only motor length C. Only logic voltage D. Number of screws

Check Answer

Correct Answer: A   |   Marks: 1

Explanation: The driver must tolerate the motor's current demand and transients.

Q88. A half-bridge contains:

A. High-side and low-side switching paths B. Four transformers always C. Only a fuse D. Two gears

Check Answer

Correct Answer: A   |   Marks: 1

Explanation: A half-bridge has one high-side and one low-side switch.

Q89. Dead time helps prevent:

A. Shoot-through current B. Motor rotation C. PWM generation D. Current measurement

Check Answer

Correct Answer: A   |   Marks: 1

Explanation: Dead time prevents both switches conducting simultaneously.

Q90. A heat sink is used to:

A. Remove heat from power devices B. Increase resistance mechanically C. Store code D. Measure position

Check Answer

Correct Answer: A   |   Marks: 1

Explanation: It improves heat transfer and limits device temperature.

Q91. A 12 V motor is driven at 50% ideal PWM duty. Average voltage is:

A. 6 V B. 12 V C. 24 V D. 0.5 V

Check Answer

Correct Answer: A   |   Marks: 1

Explanation: Average voltage≈duty×supply=0.5×12=6 V.

Q92. A PWM period is 1 ms. Frequency is:

A. 1 kHz B. 100 Hz C. 10 kHz D. 1 Hz

Check Answer

Correct Answer: A   |   Marks: 1

Explanation: f=1/T=1/0.001=1000 Hz.

Q93. A 24 V driver supplies 3 A. Ideal power is:

A. 72 W B. 8 W C. 27 W D. 24 W

Check Answer

Correct Answer: A   |   Marks: 1

Explanation: P=VI=24×3=72 W.

Q94. An H-bridge reverses a DC motor by:

A. Reversing voltage polarity across the motor B. Changing motor mass C. Increasing fuse rating D. Removing the rotor

Check Answer

Correct Answer: A   |   Marks: 1

Explanation: Opposite bridge switching reverses terminal polarity.

Q95. A 0.1 Ω current-sense resistor carries 2 A. Voltage drop is:

A. 0.2 V B. 20 V C. 2.1 V D. 0.05 V

Check Answer

Correct Answer: A   |   Marks: 1

Explanation: V=IR=2×0.1=0.2 V.

Q96. A driver is 90% efficient and supplies 100 W. Input power is approximately:

A. 111.1 W B. 90 W C. 100 W D. 10 W

Check Answer

Correct Answer: A   |   Marks: 1

Explanation: Pin=Pout/efficiency=100/0.9≈111.1 W.

Q97. A driver path resistance is 0.2 Ω and current is 5 A. Conduction loss is:

A. 5 W B. 1 W C. 10 W D. 60 W

Check Answer

Correct Answer: A   |   Marks: 1

Explanation: P=I²R=25×0.2=5 W.

Q98. A 24 V supply is used at 25% ideal PWM duty. Average voltage is:

A. 6 V B. 4.8 V C. 18 V D. 24 V

Check Answer

Correct Answer: A   |   Marks: 1

Explanation: Average voltage≈0.25×24=6 V.

Q99. A high-side N-channel MOSFET may need a special driver because:

A. Its gate must be driven above a rising source voltage B. It has no gate C. It conducts only AC D. It cannot switch inductive loads

Check Answer

Correct Answer: A   |   Marks: 1

Explanation: A high-side N-MOSFET often needs a bootstrap or floating gate driver.

Q100. A 48 V driver supplies 4 A and loses 12 W. Output electrical power is:

A. 180 W B. 192 W C. 204 W D. 12 W

Check Answer

Correct Answer: A   |   Marks: 1

Explanation: Input power=48×4=192 W; output=192−12=180 W.